Assistant Commandant (General Duty) - Male

Eligibility Criteria

Type of Entry Age Educational Qualification Medical Standard
Assistant Commandant (GD)

21-25 years

(5 Yrs relaxation for SC/ST and 3 Yrs for OBC)

(5 Yrs relaxation for personnel serving in Coast Guard or equivalent personnel in Army or Navy or Air Force)

(i) Should hold a degree of recognized university with minimum 60% aggregate marks for General/OBC/EWS candidates and 55% aggregate for SC/ST candidates.

(ii) Mathematics and Physics as subject up to Intermediate or class XII of 10+2+3 scheme of education or equivalent with minimum 55% aggregate marks in Mathematics and Physics. The candidates who have completed graduation after diploma, are also eligible, provided they should possess an aggregate of 55% marks in diploma with physics and mathematics in its curriculum.

(a) Height: 157 cms
Reduction in minimum height for candidates from hilly areas and tribal areas will be in accordance with the Central Govt. regulations.

(b) Weight: Proportionate to the height and age. ( + 10% acceptable)

(c) Chest: well proportionate, minimum 5 cms expansion

(d) Hearing. Normal

(e) Eye Sight :
6/6 6/9 – Uncorrected without glass.
6/6 6/6 – Corrected with glass.

The candidates whose results are disclosed in decimals of percentage are to round off their percentage marks to the nearest whole digit. However, if the decimal percentage of a individual is less than the minimum qualifying percentage the individual is not eligible and the candidature of the candidate shall be cancelled. (for example if the procedure for rounding off of decimal percentage will be as follows:-

  1. The score of decimal percentage of from 0.1 to 0.5 will be rounded to the lower side of whole number (i.e. 60.5 to be rounded to 60 and not 61)
  2. The score of decimal percentage from 0.6 - 0.9 to be rounded to next nearest higher side of the whole number {(i.e. 60.9 to be rounded off to nearest higher whole number 61). A UR/OBC candidate has scored 59.9% in graduation the candidate is not eligible for application and if a SC/ST candidate has scored 54.9% in graduation the candidate is not eligible for applying for the respective post. However, if a UR/OBC candidate has scored 60.5% he has to round off his percentage to the nearest whole number is (60%) during submission of application. If any candidates has scored 60.6% or then he has to round off to 61%}
  1. Upper age relaxation of 5 years for SC/ST and 3 years for OBC (non-creamy layer) candidates is applicable only if posts are reserved for them.
  2. Maximum 5% relaxation in aggregate in the degree certificate for SC/ST candidates. No relaxation is applicable for 12th class marks except CPL-SSA entry.
  3. In case the candidates are awarded grades/ CGPA instead of marks, the conversion of grades/ CGPA to percentage of marks would be based on the procedure certified by the University from where they have obtained the degree/school board
  4. Candidates having Integrated Post-Graduation are also eligible provided they should have a certificate issued by the respective Institution/ University, certifying that the candidate has passed the qualifying Degree (with Percentage/Class) as a part of the Integrated Post Graduation Course and the candidate is eligible for award of Graduation Degree. The candidate has to upload the certificate carrying Name, Father’s name, Date of Birth, Registration Number/ Roll No. during the registration.
  5. Income certificate for EWS (Economically Weaker Sections) as per Government of India format (no other format will be entertained) and related regulations.
  6. Indian Coast Guard has the discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination and decide on number of candidates to be shortlisted for Stage-II (PSB) & Stage-III (FSB).
  7. The date of Birth and Gender will not be allowed to be changed at any subsequent stage even after induction under any circumstances whatsoever and your candidature/ appointment will be cancelled at any stage wherever any wrong information is detected.

Additional Eligibility Criteria

  1. Candidates withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from any other service training academy are not eligible to appear.

  2. Candidates should not have been arrested, convicted or prosecuted on criminal charges

  3. If there is no vacancy for SC/ST/OBC (Non-creamy)/EWS category candidates, in such case, reserved category candidates can still apply as unreserved, however, they will not be eligible for any age and passing marks concession/relaxation. SC/ST candidates will only be exempted from payment of application fee.

  4. Candidates who are studying in the final year/ final semester degree course and are yet to pass the final year degree examination can also apply provided candidate should not have any backlog and should have secured a minimum of 60% marks up to the last semester/ year for which results have been declared at the time of submission of application. They are required to submit proof of passing the degree examination by 30 Nov 24 and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever. Such candidates have to produce a certificate signed by Registrar/Controller of the university regarding non declaration of final year/semester result (Format available on website).

  5. NOTE: The below content is for better clarification on eligibility of candidates who are in final year or semester and are applying for this batch
    Ser Type of Course Mandatory Documents to be held by candidates
    a) Yearly Course (wherein exams are conducted once a year) Second year marksheet with date of issue on or before the closing date of application (if Course is for 03 years)

    Third Year marksheet with date of issue on or before the closing date of application (if course is of 04 years)
    b) Semester Course Fifth semester marksheet with date of issue on or before the closing date of application (if course is for 03 years)

    Seventh semester marksheet with date of issue on or before the closing date of application (if course is of 04 years)
    Candidates not fulfilling the above criteria are ineligible to apply


Section No. Section Topic
Section 1 English Comprehension, Usage of Words, Sentence completion / Corrections, Punctuations, Grammar, Vocabulary, Antonyms and Synonyms, Parts of Speech, Direct and Indirect Speech, Idioms and Phrases, Active and Passive Voice.etc (Question paper will be designed to test the candidates understanding of English and workmanlike use of Grammar)
Section 2 Reasoning and Numerical Ability Spatial, Numerical, Reasoning and Associative Ability, Sequences, Spellings, Unscrambling, Coding and Decoding, Missing Numbers / Series Completion, Decimal Fraction, Ratios and Proportion, Average and Volume, Time and Work, Speed and Distance, Market Price, Cash Price, Expenditure Problems, Profit and Loss, Percentage, Factoring (LCM and HCF), Simple Interest and Compound Interest, Mensuration Formulas (Calculation of length, breadth or height of square, rectangle, cube etc)
Section 3 General Science and Mathematical Aptitude Nature of Matter, Universe, Electricity and its Applications, Force and Gravitation, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Work, Energy and Power, Heat, Temperature, Light, Current, Magnetism, Metals and Non Metals, Measurements, Sound and Wave Motion, Atomic Structure, Chemistry – Carbon and its Compounds, Periodic Table, Acids, Bases & Salts, Food, Nutrition and Health Physiology and Human Diseases and Basic Computer Science Arithmetic Ability, Number Systems, Algebra, Basic Trigonometry, Geometry, Statistics, Probability and Set Theory.
Section 4 General Knowledge History of India, Geography, Climate / Environment, Civics – Constitution of India, Art, Culture, Dance, Heritage, Religion, Freedom Movement, Important National Facts, Economics, Politics, Sports and Championships, Entertainment, Books and Authors, Awards, Defence and Wars, Geographical Neighbours, Countries – Languages, Capitals, Currencies, Common Name, Full Forms, Abbreviations, Eminent Personalities, National – Bird/ Animal/ Monuments/ Flower/ Anthem/ Sport/ Flag/ Emblem etc, Discoveries and Current Affairs.
Model Question Paper for     Assistant Commandant (General Duty)  

Selection Procedure

The selection of Assistant Commandant (GD) is based on an all India order of merit which is based on the performance of candidate in various stages (I – V) of examination (explained in detail below) and the number of vacancies available for the post. Clearing of Stage I, II, III, IV and V is compulsory for recruitment in ICG. All candidates will be compulsorily subjected to biometric, photo identification and document verification during various stages of examination. Various stages of CGCAT are as follows:-

(1) Stage-I (Screening Test)

(2) Stage-II ( Preliminary Selection Board)

(3) Stage-III ( Final Selection Board)

(4) Stage-IV (Medical examination)

(5) Stage-V (Induction)

(1) Stage-I (Screening Test)

(a)  Candidates applying for Assistant Commandant (GD) will appear for section I of computer based screening test, which will consists of 100 questions (4 marks for each correct answer). Stage I examination will be conducted on PAN India basis for a duration of two hours. Section I is divided into four subsections consist of English, Reasoning & Numerical Ability, General Science & Mathematical aptitude and General Knowledge. The subjects and distribution of marks for each post is described below:-

Subjects No of Questions Total Marks Passing Marks Duration
A: English 25 100 160(UR/EWS/OBC)
140 (SC/ST)
2 Hrs
B: Reasoning & Numerical Ability 25 100
C: General Science & Mathematical aptitude 25 100
D: General Knowledge 25 100
Total 100 400
(i) Paper will be in English.
(ii) Marking scheme will be is as follows:
(aa) Four marks will be awarded for every correct answer.
(ab) One mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
(ac)No marks for unattempted questions.
(iii) Indian Coast Guard has the discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all subjects of the examination for short listing of candidates for stage-II (PSB).

(b)   Candidate reporting for screening test will first undergo photo and biometric registration. Photo & biometric registered in stage I will be verified in subsequent stages of CGCAT.

(c)   Normalisation of Marks. In order to rationalise the marks scored by candidates appearing in different shifts in an objective manner through a statistical method, before declaration of result, marks scored by candidates will be normalised as per the following formula:-

  • Where:
    Mij = Normalised maks of jth candidate in the ith shift.
  • Mtg = is the average marks of the top 0.1% of the candidates considering all shifts (number of candidates will be rounded-up)
  • Mqg= is the sum of mean and standard deviation marks of the candidates in the examination considering all shifts.
  • Mti = is the average marks of the top 0.1% of the candidates in the ith shift (number of candidates will be rounded-up)
  • Miq = is the sum of mean marks and standard deviation of the ith shift.
  • Mij = is the actual marks obtained by the jth candidate in the ith shift.
  • Mqgm = is the sum of mean marks of candidates in the shift having maximum mean and standard deviation of marks of candidates in the examination considering all shifts

(2) Stage-II ( Preliminary Selection Board)

Based on the performance in the Stage-I, candidates will be shortlisted for appearing in Stage-II(PSB)which will be conducted for a day at Noida, Mumbai/Goa, Chennai and Kolkata centres. Candidates to give the choice of PSB centre at the time of filling of application form. Candidates will be screened through Computerised Cognitive Battery Test (CCBT) and Picture Perception & Discussion (PP&DT). The CCBT will be in English only and will be of objective type. During PP&DT the candidates are expected to speak and discuss in English. However, they are free to speak in Hindi if they wish to do so. The Stage-II examination is only of qualifying nature i.e. either Pass or Fail.

  1. Candidate’s Verification. Candidates reporting for Stage-II will first undergo photo and biometric verification. The photo captured & biometric recorded during Stage-II is to be verified with the captured photo & biometric recorded during the Stage-I. If the biometric (thumb impression) of a candidate at Stage-II does not match with the biometric captured at Stage-I, the document verification team is empowered to establish the identity/ genuineness of the candidate by approved procedures by Competent Authority and recapture the Biometric of the candidate for verification in the subsequent stages. However if the document verification team is not convinced with the genuineness of the candidate after manual verification process as mentioned above, then the candidature of the candidate will be cancelled.
  2. Documents Verification. The candidates who have cleared PSB will undergo document verification. The original documents brought by candidates will be verified as per the documents uploaded by the candidates during registration for StageII. In case of any discrepancy, the candidature will be cancelled and a ‘Rejection Slip’ indicating the reasons for rejection will be handed over to the candidate.

(3) Stage-III ( Final Selection Board)

The candidates qualifying for Stage-III will be intimated on completion of stage-II at respective centres. The schedule of Stage-III will be intimated to the candidate on personal Login IDs. The FSB call up letter along with reporting instructions will be intimated to candidates on personal Login IDs. FSB is conducted at the Coast Guard Selection Board (CGSB) located at Noida and spans over five days. The candidates are subjected to Psychological Test, Group Task and Interview (Personality test). The Final Selection will be conducted tentatively from Jul - Oct 2024. All documents/certificates verified during PSB are also required to be produced in originals during FSB. Board conference is held on last day and thereafter recommended candidates are sent for Stage-IV i.e. Special medical examination.

(4) Stage-IV (Medical Examination)

The candidates who clear Stage-III are required to undergo a special medical examination at Base Hospital, New Delhi. Candidates declared unfit in Special Medical Board (SMB) will be included in the merit list as they have the option to appeal the verdict and will report for appeal medicals at designated service hospital within 42 days of completion of SMB. If declared unfit during appeal medicals, such candidates have the option to request the Director General of Armed Forces Medical Services (DGAFMS) through Directorate of Recruitment, Coast Guard Headquarters for review of the results. Service Headquarters will consider such request and RMB will be granted based on the merits of the case. RMB is not a matter of right. If the review is approved, the designated hospital for conduct of the review will be indicated in the approval. The decision of the Review Medical Board (RMB) will be final and no further appeal will be accepted. Click here for Medical/Physical Standards acceptable in ICG.

Note: Candidates completing SMB/AMB/RMB beyond the date of induction at INA will not be eligible for induction in the instant batch or forthcoming batch. Such candidates, will have to apply afresh for the subsequent batch and go through the complete recruitment cycle, subject to fulfilling the eligibility criteria.

(5) Stage-V (Induction)

The candidates who clear Stage - IV and stand in All India Merit List as per the vacancies available will be provisionally selected for training and will be required to report at INA Ezhimala for Naval Orientation Course (NOC) as per the instructions. All India Merit List will be based on combined marks of Stage-I and Stage-III. Candidates reporting at INA Ezhimala for training will first undergo photo and biometric verification.

Note: The last date of induction at INA will be 31 Dec 2024 or the date mentioned in Appointment letter, whichever is earlier. No further induction will be undertaken after 31 Dec 2024 under any circumstance due to requirement for maintaining batch integrity on the crucial date i.e 01 Jan 2025.

Medical Standards

These standards are laid down to assess the fitness of a candidate for selection of Assistant Commandant (General Duty) in ICG.

1. Height, Weight And Chest

(a) Height
Only male candidate can apply for this post and minimum height required for entry into Indian Coast Guard for male candidate is 157 cm


  1. Height standards may be reduced by 05 cm below 157 cms in the case of Gorkhas, Nepalese, Assamese(including those from Nagaland, Mizoram, Meghalaya,Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Garhwal, Sikkim, local tribes of Andaman and Nicobar Islands)
  2. And upto 2 cm in case of candidates from Lakshadweep.

(b) Weight
The minimum acceptable weight that candidate of a particular age and height must have is tabulated below. These weights are based on BMI.

Table 1. - Height / Weight standards for male candidate (in kgs)

Height in Cms AGE IN YEARS
16 18 20 22 24 26 28 30 32 34 36 38 40
152 44 45 46 47 48 48 49 49 50 50 50 51 51
155 45 46 47 49 50 50 51 51 52 52 52 53 53
157 46 47 49 50 51 51 52 53 53 53 54 54 55
160 47 48 50 51 52 53 53 54 54 56 56 56 57
162 48 50 52 53 54 54 55 55 56 56 57 57 58
165 50 52 53 55 56 56 57 57 58 58 58 59 59
168 52 53 55 57 58 58 58 59 59 60 60 61 61
170 53 55 57 58 59 60 60 61 61 62 62 62 63
173 55 57 59 60 61 62 62 62 63 64 64 65 65
175 57 59 61 62 62 63 64 64 65 66 67 67 67
178 59 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 67 68 69 69 70
180 61 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 71 72 72
183 63 65 67 67 68 70 71 72 72 73 74 75 75
185 66 67 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 77 78
188 68 70 71 72 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 81
190 70 72 73 74 76 78 79 80 81 82 82 83 84
193 72 74 76 77 78 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87
195 75 77 78 79 81 82 83 85 86 87 88 89 90


  1. The weight of any candidate should not however vary from the average by more than 10% of ideal weight.
  2. Certain athletic individuals like wrestlers or bodybuilders may exceed the prescribed weight limit because of bigger muscle mass. In such individuals, assessment will be made of subcutaneous fat. For this purpose skin fold thickness of more than 23mm in males will be taken as indicative of obesity. If there is no excess of adipose tissue, such individuals will be considered fit. However in doubtful cases the opinion of Medical Specialist must be sought.

(c) Chest
(i) Should be well proportioned without deformity of chest, congenital or acquired.
(ii) Expansion not less than 5 cms.
(iii) Absence of significant gynaecomastia in males, bilateral or unilatera.

2. Eyes

Visual standard acceptable for Assistant Commandant (GD) in ICG is as follows:-

Uncorrected without glass Corrected with glass Limit of Myopia Limit of Hypermetropia Binocular Vision Limit of Colour Perception
-0.75 +1.5


(a) Vision in either eye of the candidate is required upto the standard. His eyes are to be bright, clear and with no obvious squint or abnormality. Movements of eye balls should be full and free in all directions.

(b) Distant Vision - Candidates who do not qualify the distant vision standard (uncorrected without glass) will be declared unfit even if their other eye standards are within normal limits.

(c) Wearing of Spectacles - Spectacles are permitted in all branches, even at the time of entry, except GD branch prior to completion of initial training. The glasses should not have a tint darker than A2 tint.

(d) Wearing of Contact Lenses - Contact lenses are permitted in all branches. However, the responsibility for their procurement, maintenance and for any complications resulting from their use, rests entirely on the individual. Exceptions are as (c) ibid.

(e) Muscle Balance -
(i) Limits of Heterophoria (distant) at 6 meters (latent squint) tested by Maddox Rod(provided convergence insufficiency and other symptoms are absent):
(aa) Eso and Exophoria not to exceed eight prism dioptres.
(ab) Hyperphoria not to exceed one prism dioptres.
(ii) Limits of heterophoria(near) at 30 cm by Maddox Wing:
(aa) Esophoria six prism dioptres.
(ab) Exophoria 16 prism dioptres.
(ac) Hyperphoria one prism dioptres.

(f) Ocular movements must be full in all directions and the pupils should react normally to light and accommodation. Manifest squint is a cause for rejection.

(g) Visual Fields - The Visual fields in each eye must be full as tested by confrontation method.

(h) Standard of colour Perception - As reflected in the table for each branch and to be tested by MLT at a distance of 6M (20 feet). Test by Ishihara/Tokyo Medical College Book Test with no error.

(i) Laser therapy for correction of Myopia is not acceptable.

(j) Standard for Night Vision Acuity(NVA) -
(i) Night vision is not to be tested as a routine. Candidate who complains of Night blindness are to be rejected.
(ii) Night Vision acuity is to be tested only if there is a history of congenital night blindness in the family or where there is a suspicion of night blindness in the candidate. In other cases, an assertion by the candidate (applicable only to candidates for GD branch) that neither he nor any of his family members suffers from congenital night blindness, will suffice.

(k) Fundus and Media should be healthy with no evidence of degenerative and hereditary disorders.

(l) Other causes for Rejection -
(i) Chronic inflammation of eyelids and adnexa.
(ii) Xeropthalmia.
(ii) Pterygium.
(iv) Medial Opacities.
(v) Abnormal pupillary reactions.

3. Ear, Nose and Throat

(a) Ear
History of recurrent ear ache, tinnitus or vertigo, impairment of hearing, disease of the external meatus including atresia, exostosis or neoplasm which prevent a thorough examination of the drum, unhealed perforation of the tympanic membrane, aural discharge or sign of acute or chronic suppurative otitis media, evidence of radical or modified radical mastoid operation, are a cause for being unfit.


  1. A candidate should be able to hear forced whisper at a distance of 610 cms with each ear separately with back to the examiner.
  2. Even though when the ear is healthy, the tympanic membrane is intact and freely mobile, and there is no defective hearing on audiometry, but if the candidate has undergone a cortical mastoid operation, a successful myringoplasty or tympanoplasty, the candidate is to be rejected.

(b) Nose
Disease of the bones or cartilages of the nose, marked nasal allergy, nasal polyps, atrophic rhinitis, disease of the accessory Sinuses and nasopharynx are causes for rejection.

Simple nasal deformity not causing disfigurement, minor simple deviation not interfering with nasal airway and small traumatic septal perforation which is asymptomatic are acceptable.

(c) Throat
Disease of throat, palate, tongue, tonsils, gums and disease or injury affecting the normal function of either mandibular joints should be absent.

Simple hypertrophy of the tonsils without associated history of attacks of tonsillitis is acceptable.

(d) Disease of the larynx and impediment of speech should be absent
Voice should be normal. Candidates with pronounced stammer will not be accepted.

4. Neck

(a) Disease of the thyroid gland is a cause for rejection.
(b) Enlarged glands, tubercular or due to other diseases in the neck or other parts of the body are a cause for rejection.

Scars of operations for the removal of tubercular glands are not a cause for rejection provided there has been no active disease within the preceding five years and the chest is clinically and radiologically clear.

5. Skin and Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD)

A candidate should not have:-

(a) Skin disease unless temporary or trivial.
(b) Scars which by their extent or position cause or are likely to cause disability or marked disfigurement.
(c) Hyperhydrosis palmar, plantar, or axillary.
(d) Congenital, active or latent sexually transmitted diseases.

In cases with old healed scar over the groin or penis suggestive of past STD, Blood will be tested for STD(Including HIV) to exclude latent sexually transmitted diseases.

6. Respiratory System

A candidate should not have:-

(a) History of chronic cough or bronchial asthma are cause for rejection.
(b) Evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis is a cause for rejection.
(c) Evidence of diseases of bronchi, lungs or pleurae detected on radiological examination of the chest will disqualify the candidate.

7. Cardio-Vascular System

A candidate should not have:-

(a) Functional or organic disease of the heart or blood vessels, presence of murmurs or clicks on auscultation.
(b) Tachycardia (Pulse Rate persistently over 96/min at rest), bradycardia (Pulse Rate persistently below 40/min at rest), any abnormality of peripheral pulses.
(c) Blood pressure exceeding 140mm Hg systolic or 90 mmHg diastolic.

8. Abdomen

A candidate should not have:-

(a) Evidence of any disease of the gastro-intestinal tract. Enlargement of liver, gall bladder or spleen, tenderness on abdominal palpation, evidence/history of extensive abdominal surgery.
(b) Fistula in ano, anal fissure, or hemorrhoids, unless satisfactory treatment has been carried out.
(c) Inguinal or any other hernia or tendency thereto.


Those who have been operated for hernia/hydrocele, varicose-veins, vericocele may be declared fit provided:

(i) Six months have elapsed since the operation for hernia and six weeks for other operations. Documentary proof to this effect is to be produced by the candidate.
(ii) General tone of the abdominal musculature is good.
(iii) There is no recurrence of hernia or any other complication connected with the operation.

9. Genito-urinary system

A candidate should not have:-

(a) Any evidence of defect/disease of genital organ, hydrocele, varicocele.
(b) Disease or malformation of the kidneys or urethra.
(c) Incontinence of Urine, nocturnal enuresis.
(d) Any abnormality on examination of urine including albuminuria or glycosuria.
(e) Bilateral undescended testis, Unilateral undescended testis, retained in the inguinal canal or at the external abdominal ring unless corrected by operation.


Absence of one testis is not a cause for rejection unless the testis has been removed on account of disease or its absence has affected the physical or mental health of the candidate.

10. Central Nervous System

(a) Organic disease of Central Nervous System is not acceptable.
(b) Tremors, not acceptable.
(c) Candidates with history of fits or recurrent attacks of headache/migraine will not be accepted.

11. Psychiatric Disorders

History or evidence of mental disease or nervous instability in the candidate or his family not acceptable.

12. Dental Condition

It should be ensured that a sufficient number of natural and sound teeth are present for efficient mastication. Teeth not considered necessary for efficient mastication are allotted one point each, and those essential two points each.

(a) Dental points less than 14 are a cause for rejection. A candidate must have a minimum of 14 dental points to be acceptable in order to assess the dental condition of an individual, points are allotted as under for teeth in good apposition with corresponding teeth in either jaw.

(i) Central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, 1stPremolar, 2nd Premolar and under developed third molar- one point each.
(ii) 1st molar, 2nd molar and fully developed 3rdmolar - 2 points each.
(ii) When all 32 teeth are present, there will be a total count of 22 or 20 points according to whether the third molars are fully developed or not.

(b) The following teeth in good functional apposition must be present in each jaw:

(i) Any 4 of the anteriors.
(ii) Any 6 of the 10 posteriors.
(iii) All teeth must be sound/repairable.

(c) Candidates suffering from severe pyorrhoea will be rejected. When the state of pyorrhoea is such that in the opinion of the dental officer, it can be cured without extraction of teeth, the candidates may be accepted. A note about the affected teeth is to be inserted by the dental officer in the medical documents(AFMSF-2A).
(d) Artificial dentures are a cause for rejection, however ex-servicemen, deputationists, and those seconded from other Government departments having well fitted dentures may be accepted except divers.

13. Major Defects for Rejection are as under

(a) Weak constitution, imperfect development, congenital malformation, muscle wasting.


Wasting is to be judged entirely by its effect on function.

(b) Malformation of the head including deformity from fracture or depression of the bones of the skull.
(c) Disease or abnormal curvature of the spine. Scoliosis more than 10 by Cobb's method in less than 25 years of age, and 15 in more than 25 years of age. X-Ray of spine may be done on the advice of the appropriate specialist.
(d) Skeletal deformity either hereditary or acquired, and disease or impairment of function of bones or joints.


Rudimentary cervical rib causing no signs or symptoms is acceptable.

(e) Asymmetry of torso or limbs, abnormality of locomotion including amputation.
(f) Deformity of feet and toes.

14. Acceptable Defects on Entry

Candidates for the Coast Guard with the following minor defects may be accepted. These defects are however to be noted in the medical forms on entry.

(a) Knock knees with a separation of less than 5 cm at the internal malleoli.
(b) Mild curvature of legs not affecting walking or running Intercondylar distance should not be over 7 cm.
(c) Mild hammer toe and minor degree of hallux valgus.
(d) Flexible flat feet with no significant history of pain.
(e) Healed perforation of the ear drum without any discontinuity is acceptable, provided the hearing is normal.
(f) Mild stammering not affecting expression.
(g) Mild degree of varicocele.
(h) Mild degree of varicose veins.
(j) The carrying angle of elbow should not be more than10 degrees for male candidate and 15 degrees for female candidates.


Remedial operations where ever required are to be performed prior to entry. No guarantee is given of ultimate acceptance and it should be clearly understood by a candidate that the decision whether an operation is desirable or necessary is one to be made by his/her private medical advisor, The Government will accept no liability regarding the result of operation or any expenses incurred.

(k) Any other slight defect which produces no functional disability and which in the opinion of the medical officer/medical board will not interfere with the individuals efficiency as an officer or enrolled personnel.

Recruitment Cycle

The recruitment of Assistant Commandant will be conducted twice in a year for Batch commencing at Indian Naval Academy during the month Jun & Dec. The exact schedule of recruitment shall be decided by the Coast Guard Headquarters keeping in view the training schedule and other administrative requirements. However, the tentative schedule for two cycles is as follows:-

Event CGCAT 1st Batch CGCAT 2nd Batch
Publication of Advertisement Jan/Feb Jun/Jul
Registration As per advertisement As per advertisement
Download Admit Card As per advertisement As per advertisement
Stage-I Online exam (Screening test) As per advertisement As per advertisement
Stage-II (PSB) Jun Jan
Stage-III (FSB) Jul-Oct Feb-May
Stage-IV (Medicals) Jul-Dec Feb-Jun
Issue of Appointment Letter Dec Jun
Induction at INA End Dec End Jun

The advertisement for the above recruitment cycle is generally published as follows:

  1. First Batch Cycle- Jan/Feb
  2. Second Batch Cycle- Jun/Jul


The basic training for Assistant Commandant (General Duty) – Men will be conducted at Indian Naval academy followed by ab-initio training at various training establishments/ units/ ships of Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard.

Duration of Training

44 weeks


Pay and Allowances

Rank Pay
Navik (Domestic Branch) Basic Pay Scale for Navik (DB) is 21700/- (Pay Level-3) plus Dearness Allowance and other allowances based on nature of duty/place of posting as per the prevailing regulation.

Note: Pay and Allowances are subject to change as per government directives issued from time to time.


  1. Free ration and clothing as per the existing rules. Free medical treatment for self and family including dependent parents.
  2. Government accommodation for self & family on nominal license fee.
  3. 45 days Earned leave and 08 days Casual leave every year with Leave Travel Concession (LTC) for self, family and dependent parents as per Government rules.
  4. Contributory Pension Scheme and Gratuity on retirement.
  5. Canteen and various loan facilities.
  6. ECHS medical facilities after retirement.
  7. Insurance cover (on contribution) of Rs. 50 lakhs for Enrolled Personnel is applicable.

Note: Benefits are subject to change as per government directives issued from time to time.

Career Progression

Officer’s joining ICG as Assistant Commandant get optimum career progression opportunity for further promotion to the higher ranks. The rank structures and required minimum time period for promotion to next higher rank for Assistant Commandant (General Duty) is as follows:

Rank Structure

Director General

Additional Director General

Inspector General

Deputy Inspector General


Commandant (JG)

Deputy Commandant

Assistant Commandant

Assistant Commandant (Under Probation)

Rank Minimum time period in one rank for promotion
Assistant Commandant (Under Probation) - Assistant Commandant 2 Yrs
Assistant Commandant - Deputy Commandant 6 Yrs
Deputy Commandant - Commandant (JG) 11 Yrs
Commandant (JG) - Commandant 15 Yrs
Commandant - Deputy Inspector General 20 Yrs
Deputy Inspector General - Inspector General 24 Yrs
Inspector General - Additional Director General -
Additional Director General - Director General -

Note: Promotion rules are subject to change as per government regulations in vogue.

Job Profile

The Officer cadre is a vital part of the complex system that manages the ship and also commands the ship to safeguard our nation and lives at sea. The key functions of a General Duty Officer is to navigate ship, operate weapons, sensors and different kinds of equipment on board a ship. The safety of the ship and the men is the GD Officer’s responsibility.

Job Profile