Assistant Commandant (Technical) – Male
Eligibility Criteria
| Type of Entry | Age | Educational Qualification | Medical Standard |
|---|---|---|---|
| Assistant Commandant Technical (Mechanical/ Electrical/ Electronics) | 21-25 years (5 Yrs relaxation for SC/ST and 3 Yrs for OBC) (5 Yrs relaxation for personnel serving in Coast Guard) |
(i) Should hold an Engineering degree from a recognized
university in Naval Architecture or Mechanical or Marine
or Automotive or Mechatronics or Industrial and
Production or Metallurgy or Design or Aeronautical or
Aerospace. Equivalent qualification in any of the above disciplines recognised by the Institutes of the Engineers (India) as exempted from section ‘A’ and ‘B’ and their associate membership examination (AMIE). (ii) Should hold an Engineering degree from a recognised university in Electrical or Electronics or Telecommunication or Instrumentation or Instrumentation and Control or Electronics and Communication or Power Engineering or Power Electronics. Equivalent qualification in any of the above disciplines recognised by the Institutes of the Engineers (India) as exempted from section ‘A’ and ‘B’ and their associate membership examination (AMIE). (iii) Mathematics and Physics as subject upto intermediate or class XII of 10+2+3 scheme of education or equivalent. The candidates who have completed graduation after diploma, are also eligible, provided they should possess a diploma with physics and mathematics in its curriculum. |
(a) Height: 157 cms minimum.
(b) Weight: Proportionate to the height and age. (c) Chest: well proportionate, minimum 5 cms expansion (d) Hearing. Normal
(e) Eye Sight: |
- Upper age relaxation of 5 years for SC/ST and 3 years for OBC (non-creamy layer) candidates are applicable only if the posts are reserved for them.
- Candidates having Integrated Post-Graduation degree are also eligible to apply provided that they are in possession of certificate issued by the respective Institution/ University, certifying that the candidate has passed the qualifying Degree (with percentage/marks clearly mentioned) as a part of the Integrated Post Graduation Course and the candidate is eligible for award of a Graduation Degree. Such candidates have to upload the certificate carrying Name, Father’s name, Date of Birth, Registration Number/ Roll No. during the registration.
- Indian Coast Guard has the discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination and decide on number of candidates to be shortlisted for Stage-I, Stage-II, Stage-III.
- The date of birth and gender will not be allowed to be changed at any subsequent stage even after induction under any circumstances whatsoever and candidature/ appointment of any candidate will be cancelled at any stage whenever any wrong information is detected.
Additional Eligibility Criteria
- Candidates withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from any other service training academy are not eligible to appear.
- Candidates should not have been arrested, convicted or prosecuted on criminal charges.
- Candidates who are debarred from appearing in any public service exam are not eligible to appear.
- Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be eligible only if they are studying in the final year of degree examination. Those candidates who yet to qualify in the final year degree examination and are allowed to appear in the CGCAT-2027 examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the degree examination (with requisite percentage in aggregate) by 31 Oct 2026 and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever. Candidate who are studying in the final year/semester degree course are required to submit at the time of PSB/FSB interview a bonafide certificate issued/signed by the Registrar/Controller of the concerned university regarding non declaration of final year/semester result (Format available on ICG website) stating that they will be submit their proof of passing the graduation degree examination by 31 Oct 2026, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.
Syllabus For Section I
| Section No. | Section | Topic |
|---|---|---|
| Section 1 | English | Comprehension, Usage of Words, Sentence completion / Corrections, Punctuations, Grammar, Vocabulary, Antonyms and Synonyms, Parts of Speech, Direct and Indirect Speech, Idioms and Phrases, Active and Passive Voice.etc (Question paper will be designed to test the candidates understanding of English and workmanlike use of Grammar) |
| Section 2 | Reasoning and Numerical Ability | Spatial, Numerical, Reasoning and Associative Ability, Sequences, Spellings, Unscrambling, Coding and Decoding, Missing Numbers / Series Completion, Decimal Fraction, Ratios and Proportion, Average and Volume, Time and Work, Speed and Distance, Market Price, Cash Price, Expenditure Problems, Profit and Loss, Percentage, Factoring (LCM and HCF), Simple Interest and Compound Interest, Mensuration Formulas (Calculation of length, breadth or height of square, rectangle, cube etc) |
| Section 3 | General Science and Mathematical Aptitude | Nature of Matter, Universe, Electricity and its Applications, Force and Gravitation, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Work, Energy and Power, Heat, Temperature, Light, Current, Magnetism, Metals and Non Metals, Measurements, Sound and Wave Motion, Atomic Structure, Chemistry – Carbon and its Compounds, Periodic Table, Acids, Bases & Salts, Food, Nutrition and Health Physiology and Human Diseases and Basic Computer Science Arithmetic Ability, Number Systems, Algebra, Basic Trigonometry, Geometry, Statistics, Probability and Set Theory. |
| Section 4 | General Knowledge | History of India, Geography, Climate / Environment, Civics – Constitution of India, Art, Culture, Dance, Heritage, Religion, Freedom Movement, Important National Facts, Economics, Politics, Sports and Championships, Entertainment, Books and Authors, Awards, Defence and Wars, Geographical Neighbours, Countries – Languages, Capitals, Currencies, Common Name, Full Forms, Abbreviations, Eminent Personalities, National – Bird/ Animal/ Monuments/ Flower/ Anthem/ Sport/ Flag/ Emblem etc, Discoveries and Current Affairs. |
Selection Procedure
The selection of Assistant Commandant (Technical) is based on an all India order of merit which is based on the performance of candidate in various stages (I – V) of examination (explained in detail below) and the number of vacancies available for the post. Clearing of Stage I, II, III, IV and V is compulsory for recruitment in ICG. All candidates will be compulsorily subjected to biometric, photo identification and document verification during various stages of examination. Various stages of CGCAT are as follows:-
(1) Stage-I {Coast Guard Common Admission Test(CGCAT)}
(2) Stage-II ( Preliminary Selection Board)
(3) Stage-III ( Final Selection Board)
(4) Stage-IV (Medical examination)
(5) Stage-V (Induction)
(1) Stage-I {Coast Guard Common Admission Test(CGCAT)}
(a) Candidates applying for Assistant Commandant (Technical) will give section I for screening test, which will be a computer based examination consisting of 100 questions (4 marks for each correct answer). Section I examination will be conducted on PAN India basis for a duration of two hours. Section I is divided into four sub sections consist of English, Reasoning & Numerical Ability, General Science & Mathematical aptitude, General Knowledge. The subjects, distribution of marks Section-I is described below:-
| Subjects | No of Questions | Total Marks | Passing Marks | Duration |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| A: English | 25 | 100 | 160(UR/EWS/OBC)
140 (SC/ST) |
2 Hrs |
| B: Reasoning & Numerical Ability | 25 | 100 | ||
| C: General Science & Mathematical aptitude | 25 | 100 | ||
| D: General Knowledge | 25 | 100 | ||
| Total | 100 | 400 |
Note:
- Paper will be in English.
- Marking scheme will be is as follows:
- Four marks will be awarded for every correct answer.
- One mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
- No marks for unattempted questions.
- Indian Coast Guard has the discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all subjects of the examination for short listing of candidates for stage-II (PSB).
(b) Candidate reporting for screening test will first undergo photo and biometric registration. Photo & biometric registered in stage I will be verified in subsequent stages of CGCAT.
(c) Normalisation of Marks. In order to rationalise the marks scored by candidates appearing in different shifts in an objective manner through a statistical method, before declaration of result, marks scored by candidates will be normalised as per the following formula:-

- Where:
Mij = Normalised maks of jth candidate in the ith shift. - Mtg = is the average marks of the top 0.1% of the candidates considering all shifts (number of candidates will be rounded-up)
- Mqg= is the sum of mean and standard deviation marks of the candidates in the examination considering all shifts.
- Mti = is the average marks of the top 0.1% of the candidates in the ith shift (number of candidates will be rounded-up)
- Miq = is the sum of mean marks and standard deviation of the ith shift.
- Mij = is the actual marks obtained by the jth candidate in the ith shift.
- Mqgm = is the sum of mean marks of candidates in the shift having maximum mean and standard deviation of marks of candidates in the examination considering all shifts
(2) Stage-II ( Preliminary Selection Board)
Based on the performance in the Stage-I, candidates will be
shortlisted for appearing in Stage-II (PSB) which will be
conducted for a day at Noida, Goa, Chennai, Kolkata,
Shillong/Guwahati and Gandhinagar centres. Candidates are to
give their choice for PSB centre at the time of filling of
application form. Candidates will be screened through a
Computerised Cognitive Battery Test (CCBT) and Picture
Perception & Discussion Test (PP&DT). The CCBT will be in
English only and will be of objective type. During PP&DT the
candidates are expected to speak and discuss in English,
Hindi or combination of both. The Stage-II examination is
only of qualifying nature i.e. either recommended or not
recommended.
Note:
- Candidate’s Verification. Candidates reporting for Stage-II will first undergo photo and biometric verification. The photo captured & biometric recorded during Stage-II is to be verified with the captured photo & biometric recorded during the Stage-I. If the biometric (thumb impression) of a candidate at Stage-II does not match with the biometric captured at Stage-I, the document verification team is empowered to establish the identity/ genuineness of the candidate by approved procedures by Competent Authority and recapture the Biometric of the candidate for verification in the subsequent stages. However if the document verification team is not convinced with the genuineness of the candidate after manual verification process as mentioned above, then the candidature of the candidate will be cancelled.
- Documents Verification. The candidates who have cleared PSB will undergo document verification. The original documents brought by candidates will be verified as per the documents uploaded by the candidates during registration for StageII. In case of any discrepancy, the candidature will be cancelled and a ‘Rejection Slip’ indicating the reasons for rejection will be handed over to the candidate.
- Allotment of Centres. The candidates will be provided with the option to select his centre and date from a given choice. However, ICG reserves the right to allot any other centre, if situation necessitates. No request for change of centre and date will be entertained.
(3) Stage-III ( Final Selection Board)
The candidates qualifying for Stage-III will be intimated on completion of stage-II at respective centres. The schedule of Stage-III will be intimated to the candidate on personal Login IDs. The FSB call up letter along with reporting instructions will be intimated to candidates on personal Login IDs. FSB is conducted at the Coast Guard Selection Board (CGSB) located at Noida and spans over four/five days. The candidates are subjected to Psychological Test, Group Task and Interview (Personality test).
(4) Stage-IV (Medical Examination)
The candidates who clear Stage-III are required to undergo a special medical examination at Base Hospital, New Delhi. Candidates declared unfit in Special Medical Board (SMB) have the option to appeal the verdict and will report for appeal medicals at designated service hospital within 42 days of completion of SMB. If declared unfit during appeal medicals, such candidates have the option to request the Director General of Armed Forces Medical Services (DGAFMS) through Directorate of Recruitment, Coast Guard Headquarters for review of the results. Coast Guard HQ will consider such requests and Review Medical Board (RMB) will be granted based on the merits of the case and recommend it to Armed Forces Medical Services HQ. RMB is not a matter of right. If the review is approved, the designated hospital for conduct of the review will be indicated in the approval. The decision of the (RMB) will be final and no further appeal will be accepted. Click here for Medical/Physical Standards acceptable in ICG.
(5) Stage-V (Induction)
The candidates who clear Stage - IV and are placed in All India Merit List as per the vacancies available will be provisionally selected for training and will be directed to report at Indian Naval Academy (INA) Ezhimala for Naval Orientation Course (NOC) as per the instructions. All India Merit List will be based on combined marks of Stage-I and Stage-III. Candidates reporting at INA Ezhimala for training will first undergo photo and biometric verification.
Note: The last date of induction at INA will tentatively be 27 Dec 2026. The exact date will be mentioned in Appointment letter. No further induction will be undertaken after 31 Dec 2026 under any circumstance.
Medical Standards
These standards are laid down to assess the fitness of a candidate for selection of Assistant Commandant (Tech) in ICG.
1. Height, Weight And Chest
Only male candidate can apply for this post and minimum height required for entry into Indian Coast Guard for male candidate is 157 cm
Note:
(ii) And upto 2 cm in case of candidates from Lakshadweep.
The minimum acceptable weight that candidate of a particular age and height must have is tabulated below. These weights are based on BMI.
Table 1. - Height / Weight standards for male candidate (in kgs)
| Height in Cms | AGE IN YEARS | ||||||||||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 16 | 18 | 20 | 22 | 24 | 26 | 28 | 30 | 32 | 34 | 36 | 38 | 40 | |
| 152 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 48 | 49 | 49 | 50 | 50 | 50 | 51 | 51 |
| 155 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 49 | 50 | 50 | 51 | 51 | 52 | 52 | 52 | 53 | 53 |
| 157 | 46 | 47 | 49 | 50 | 51 | 51 | 52 | 53 | 53 | 53 | 54 | 54 | 55 |
| 160 | 47 | 48 | 50 | 51 | 52 | 53 | 53 | 54 | 54 | 56 | 56 | 56 | 57 |
| 162 | 48 | 50 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 54 | 55 | 55 | 56 | 56 | 57 | 57 | 58 |
| 165 | 50 | 52 | 53 | 55 | 56 | 56 | 57 | 57 | 58 | 58 | 58 | 59 | 59 |
| 168 | 52 | 53 | 55 | 57 | 58 | 58 | 58 | 59 | 59 | 60 | 60 | 61 | 61 |
| 170 | 53 | 55 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 | 60 | 61 | 61 | 62 | 62 | 62 | 63 |
| 173 | 55 | 57 | 59 | 60 | 61 | 62 | 62 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 64 | 65 | 65 |
| 175 | 57 | 59 | 61 | 62 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 67 | 67 |
| 178 | 59 | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 69 | 70 |
| 180 | 61 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 | 71 | 71 | 72 | 72 |
| 183 | 63 | 65 | 67 | 67 | 68 | 70 | 71 | 72 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 75 |
| 185 | 66 | 67 | 69 | 70 | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 77 | 78 |
| 188 | 68 | 70 | 71 | 72 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 | 81 | 81 |
| 190 | 70 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 76 | 78 | 79 | 80 | 81 | 82 | 82 | 83 | 84 |
| 193 | 72 | 74 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 80 | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 |
| 195 | 75 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 81 | 82 | 83 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
Note:
(ii) Certain athletic individuals like wrestlers or bodybuilders may exceed the prescribed weight limit because of bigger muscle mass. In such individuals, assessment will be made of subcutaneous fat. For this purpose skin fold thickness of more than 23mm in males and 30mm infemales(sub scapular) will be taken as indicative of obesity. If there is no excess of adipose tissue, such individuals will be considered fit. However in doubtful cases the opinion of Medical Specialist must be sought.
(i) Should be well proportioned without deformity of chest, congenital or acquired.
(ii) Expansion not less than 5 cms.
(iii) Absence of significant gynaecomastia in males, bilateral or unilatera.
2. Eyes
Visual standard acceptable for Assistant Commandant various branches in ICG is as follows:-
| Uncorrected without glass | Corrected with glass | Limit of Myopia | Limit of Hypermetropia | Binocular Vision | Limit of Colour Perception |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 6/36 6/36 |
6/6 6/6 |
-3.5 | +3.5 | Ⅲ | Ⅱ |
Note:
(b) Distant Vision - Candidates who do not qualify the distant vision standard (uncorrected without glass) will be declared unfit even if their other eye standards are within normal limits.
(c) Wearing of Spectacles - Spectacles are permitted. The glasses should not have a tint darker than A2 tint.
(d) Wearing of Contact Lenses - Contact lenses are permitted in all branches. However, the responsibility for their procurement, maintenance and for any complications resulting from their use, rests entirely on the individual. Exceptions are as (c) ibid.
(e) Muscle Balance -
(ab) Hyperphoria not to exceed one prism dioptres.
(ab) Exophoria 16 prism dioptres.
(ac) Hyperphoria one prism dioptres.
(f) Ocular movements must be full in all directions and the pupils should react normally to light and accommodation. Manifest squint is a cause for rejection.
(g) Visual Fields - The Visual fields in each eye must be full as tested by confrontation method.
(h) Standard of colour Perception - As reflected in the table for each branch and to be tested by MLT at a distance of 6M (20 feet). Test by Ishihara/Tokyo Medical College Book Test with no error.
(i) Laser therapy for correction of Myopia is not acceptable.
(j) Standard for Night Vision Acuity(NVA) -
(ii) Night Vision acuity is to be tested only if there is a history of congenital night blindness in the family or where there is a suspicion of night blindness in the candidate. In other cases, an assertion by the candidate (applicable only to candidates for GD branch) that neither he nor any of his family members suffers from congenital night blindness, will suffice.
(k) Fundus and Media should be healthy with no evidence of degenerative and hereditary disorders.
(l) Other causes for Rejection -
(ii) Xeropthalmia.
(ii) Pterygium.
(iv) Medial Opacities.
(v) Abnormal pupillary reactions.
3. Ear, Nose and Throat
History of recurrent ear ache, tinnitus or vertigo, impairment of hearing, disease of the external meatus including atresia, exostosis or neoplasm which prevent a thorough examination of the drum, unhealed perforation of the tympanic membrane, aural discharge or sign of acute or chronic suppurative otitis media, evidence of radical or modified radical mastoid operation, are a cause for being unfit.
Note:
(ii) Even though when the ear is healthy, the tympanic membrane is intact and freely mobile, and there is no defective hearing on audiometry, but if the candidate has undergone a cortical mastoid operation, a successful myringoplasty or tympanoplasty, the candidate is to be rejected.
(b) Nose
Disease of the bones or cartilages of the nose, marked nasal allergy, nasal polyps, atrophic rhinitis, disease of the accessory Sinuses and nasopharynx are causes for rejection.
Note:
(c) Throat
Disease of throat, palate, tongue, tonsils, gums and disease or injury affecting the normal function of either mandibular joints should be absent.
Note:
(d) Disease of the larynx and impediment of speech should be absent
Note:
4. Neck
(a) Disease of the thyroid gland is a cause for rejection.
(b)
Enlarged glands, tubercular or due to other diseases in the
neck or other parts of the body are a cause for rejection.
Note:
5. Skin and Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD)
A candidate should not have:-
(a) Skin disease unless temporary or trivial.
(b)
Scars which by their extent or position cause or are likely
to cause disability or marked disfigurement.
(c)
Hyperhydrosis palmar, plantar, or axillary.
(d)
Congenital, active or latent sexually transmitted diseases.
Note:
6. Respiratory System
A candidate should not have:-
(a) History of chronic cough or bronchial asthma are cause
for rejection.
(b) Evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis
is a cause for rejection.
(c) Evidence of diseases of
bronchi, lungs or pleurae detected on radiological
examination of the chest will disqualify the candidate.
7. Cardio-Vascular System
A candidate should not have:-
(a) Functional or organic disease of the heart or blood
vessels, presence of murmurs or clicks on auscultation.
(b) Tachycardia (Pulse Rate persistently over 96/min at
rest), bradycardia (Pulse Rate persistently below 40/min at
rest), any abnormality of peripheral pulses.
(c) Blood
pressure exceeding 140mm Hg systolic or 90 mmHg diastolic.
8. Abdomen
A candidate should not have:-
(a) Evidence of any disease of the gastro-intestinal tract.
Enlargement of liver, gall bladder or spleen, tenderness on
abdominal palpation, evidence/history of extensive abdominal
surgery.
(b) Fistula in ano, anal fissure, or
hemorrhoids, unless satisfactory treatment has been carried
out.
(c) Inguinal or any other hernia or tendency
thereto.
Note:
Those who have been operated for hernia/hydrocele, varicose-veins, vericocele may be declared fit provided:
(i) Six months have elapsed since the operation for hernia
and six weeks for other operations. Documentary proof to
this effect is to be produced by the candidate.
(ii)
General tone of the abdominal musculature is good.
(iii) There is no recurrence of hernia or any other
complication connected with the operation.
9. Genito-urinary system
A candidate should not have:-
(a) Any evidence of defect/disease of genital organ,
hydrocele, varicocele.
(b) Disease or malformation of
the kidneys or urethra.
(c) Incontinence of Urine,
nocturnal enuresis.
(d) Any abnormality on examination
of urine including albuminuria or glycosuria.
(e)
Bilateral undescended testis, Unilateral undescended testis,
retained in the inguinal canal or at the external abdominal
ring unless corrected by operation.
Note:
Absence of one testis is not a cause for rejection unless the testis has been removed on account of disease or its absence has affected the physical or mental health of the candidate.
10. Central Nervous System
(a) Organic disease of Central Nervous System is not
acceptable.
(b) Tremors, not acceptable.
(c)
Candidates with history of fits or recurrent attacks of
headache/migraine will not be accepted.
11. Psychiatric Disorders
History or evidence of mental disease or nervous instability in the candidate or his family not acceptable.
12. Dental Condition
It should be ensured that a sufficient number of natural and sound teeth are present for efficient mastication. Teeth not considered necessary for efficient mastication are allotted one point each, and those essential two points each.
(a) Dental points less than 14 are a cause for rejection. A
candidate must have a minimum of 14 dental points to be
acceptable in order to assess the dental condition of an
individual, points are allotted as under for teeth in good
apposition with corresponding teeth in either jaw.
(i) Central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, 1stPremolar,
2nd Premolar and under developed third molar- one point
each.
(ii) 1st molar, 2nd molar and fully developed
3rdmolar - 2 points each.
(ii) When all 32 teeth are
present, there will be a total count of 22 or 20 points
according to whether the third molars are fully developed or
not.
(b) The following teeth in good functional apposition must be
present in each jaw:
(i) Any 4 of the anteriors.
(ii) Any 6 of the 10
posteriors.
(iii) All teeth must be sound/repairable.
(c) Candidates suffering from severe pyorrhoea will be
rejected. When the state of pyorrhoea is such that in the
opinion of the dental officer, it can be cured without
extraction of teeth, the candidates may be accepted. A note
about the affected teeth is to be inserted by the dental
officer in the medical documents(AFMSF-2A).
(d)
Artificial dentures are a cause for rejection, however
ex-servicemen, deputationists, and those seconded from other
Government departments having well fitted dentures may be
accepted except divers.
13. Major Defects for Rejection are as under
(a) Weak constitution, imperfect development, congenital
malformation, muscle wasting.
Note:
Wasting is to be judged entirely by its effect on function.
(b) Malformation of the head including deformity from
fracture or depression of the bones of the skull.
(c)
Disease or abnormal curvature of the spine. Scoliosis more
than 10 by Cobb's method in less than 25 years of age,
and 15 in more than 25 years of age. X-Ray of spine may be
done on the advice of the appropriate specialist.
(d)
Skeletal deformity either hereditary or acquired, and disease
or impairment of function of bones or joints.
Note:
Rudimentary cervical rib causing no signs or symptoms is acceptable.
(e) Asymmetry of torso or limbs, abnormality of locomotion
including amputation.
(f) Deformity of feet and toes.
14. Acceptable Defects on Entry
Candidates for the Coast Guard with the following minor
defects may be accepted. These defects are however to be
noted in the medical forms on entry.
(a) Knock knees with a separation of less than 5 cm at the
internal malleoli.
(b) Mild curvature of legs not
affecting walking or running Intercondylar distance should
not be over 7 cm.
(c) Mild hammer toe and minor degree
of hallux valgus.
(d) Flexible flat feet with no
significant history of pain.
(e) Healed perforation of
the ear drum without any discontinuity is acceptable,
provided the hearing is normal.
(f) Mild stammering
not affecting expression.
(g) Mild degree of
varicocele.
(h) Mild degree of varicose veins.
(j) The carrying angle of elbow should not be more than10
degrees for male candidate and 15 degrees for female
candidates.
Note:
Remedial operations where ever required are to be performed
prior to entry. No guarantee is given of ultimate acceptance
and it should be clearly understood by a candidate that the
decision whether an operation is desirable or necessary is
one to be made by his/her private medical advisor, The
Government will accept no liability regarding the result of
operation or any expenses incurred.
(k) Any other slight defect which produces no functional
disability and which in the opinion of the medical
officer/medical board will not interfere with the individuals
efficiency as an officer or enrolled personnel.
Recruitment Cycle
The recruitment of Assistant Commandant will be conducted twice in a year for Batch commencing at Indian Naval Academy during the month Jun & Dec. The exact schedule of recruitment shall be decided by the Coast Guard Headquarters keeping in view the training schedule and other administrative requirements. However, the tentative schedule for two cycles is as follows:-
| Event | CGCAT 1st Batch | CGCAT 2nd Batch |
|---|---|---|
| Publication of Advertisement | Jan/Feb | Jun/Jul |
| Registration | As per advertisement | As per advertisement |
| Download Admit Card | As per advertisement | As per advertisement |
| Stage-I Online exam (Screening test) | As per advertisement | As per advertisement |
| Stage-II (PSB) | Jun | Jan |
| Stage-III (FSB) | Jul-Oct | Feb-May |
| Stage-IV (Medicals) | Jul-Dec | Feb-Jun |
| Issue of Appointment Letter | Dec | Jun |
| Induction at INA | End Dec | End Jun |
Note:
The
advertisement for the above recruitment cycle is generally
published as follows:
- First Batch Cycle- Jan/Feb
- Second Batch Cycle- Jun/Jul
Training
The basic training for Assistant Commandant (Technical) will be conducted at Indian Naval academy followed by ab-initio training at various training establishments/ units/ ships of Indian Navy and Indian Coast Guard.
Duration of Training
22 weeks
Pay and Allowances
| Rank | Pay |
|---|---|
| Navik (Domestic Branch) | Basic Pay Scale for Navik (DB) is 21700/- (Pay Level-3) plus Dearness Allowance and other allowances based on nature of duty/place of posting as per the prevailing regulation. |
Note: Pay and Allowances are subject to change as per government directives issued from time to time.
Payment Options & Procedure
- Examination Fee: Examination fee of Rs. 250/- is to be paid by the candidate while registering for the online examination. The payment can be made by any one of the method mentioned below:-
- Pay through Credit/Debit Card (Master/Visa/Maestro), Net banking: Candidate can pay online using any Credit/Debit Card (Master/Visa/Maestro). Additional charges are applicable for making payment through Net banking.
- Pay through Unified Payments Interface (UPI): Candidate can pay online using UPI by entering VPA.
- After successful payment, payment successful screen containing payment transaction details is shown. Payment confirmation message will be sent to candidate's registered mobile number and email id containing payment transaction details.
- If payment is deducted from your account and failure payment status is shown, then logout from your account and re-login into account. If still payment status is shown as "Payment is not received" then kindly check status of refund from your bank.
- Candidates are advised to make payment using their own bank account, in case of refund it will be refunded back to same account.
- At any moment of time candidate can check his status of application as: E.g. submitted, under progress, Payment realization pending etc. by logging in through his registered e-mail ID and password and by clicking on Preview/Print Application Form button. On confirmation of successful payment, a duly filled application form along with unique registration number will be generated, which candidate is supposed to download and take a colour printout of same by clicking on Preview/Print Application Form button and carry it along with them, as and when if called for medical exam.
- In case the amount is debited from the account of the candidate and application submission is not successful, then the dispute has to be addressed suitably by C-DAC, Pune.
- Exemption of Examination Fee. The Candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribes are exempted for online recruitment examination fee per GoI guidelines.
Benefits
- Free ration and clothing as per the existing rules. Free medical treatment for self and family including dependent parents.
- Government accommodation for self & family on nominal license fee.
- 45 days Earned leave and 08 days Casual leave every year with Leave Travel Concession (LTC) for self, family and dependent parents as per Government rules.
- Contributory Pension Scheme and Gratuity on retirement.
- Canteen and various loan facilities.
- ECHS medical facilities after retirement.
- Insurance cover (on contribution) of Rs. 50 lakhs for Enrolled Personnel is applicable.
Note: Benefits are subject to change as per government directives issued from time to time.
Career Progression
Officer’s joining ICG as Assistant Commandant get optimum career progression opportunity for further promotion to the higher ranks. The rank structures and required minimum time period for promotion to next higher rank for Assistant Commandant (Technical) is as follows:
Rank Structure
Inspector General
Deputy Inspector General
Commandant
Commandant (JG)
Deputy Commandant
Assistant Commandant
Assistant Commandant (Under Probation)
| Rank | Minimum time period in one rank for promotion |
|---|---|
| Assistant Commandant (Under Probation) - Assistant Commandant | 2 Yrs |
| Assistant Commandant - Deputy Commandant | 6 Yrs |
| Deputy Commandant - Commandant (JG) | 11 Yrs |
| Commandant (JG) - Commandant | 15 Yrs |
| Commandant - Deputy Inspector General | 20 Yrs |
| Deputy Inspector General - Inspector General | 24 Yrs |
Note: Promotion rules are subject to change as per government regulations in vogue.
Job Profile
Technical Officers (Mechanical and Electrical/Electronics) are responsible for operation of machinery and equipment of advanced technology on board Coast Guard vessels and aircraft, as well as on shore installations.

